14. Your patient is a 42 year old male that was involved in a rollover MVA that was unrestrained. He is complaining of neck pain and cannot move his left arm. He is not intoxicated and is alert and oriented. His MRI of his cervical spine was normal. Repeat examination is unchanged. Which of the following is best management action?
A. Start the patient and Decadron and analgesics
B. Get an EMG of his arm. He is likely malingering given the fact his MRI of his Cervical Spine is negative.
C. Admit the patient to neurosurgery with a consult to physical medicine and rehabilitation.
D. The patient needs an MRI of his brain now. He may have a mass effect from an incidental brain lesion now that is causing his arm paralysis.
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